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Old 07-14-2010, 10:26 AM
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O.G. Killa O.G. Killa is offline
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Default Re: 44.1 kHz vs. 48 kHz - why not use the higher?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Park Seward View Post
"The's also why resampling at integer multiples or divisors would be less likely to distort, the math is simpler and less prone to round-off error. If we're downsampling from 96 to 48 all we need do is throw away every other sample. If we're upsampling, each new sample lies exactly halfway between the old and all we have to do is set its value to the average of the two old samples on either side of it. But if that new sample has to be inserted at .345654 of the time between two old samples and the next one is at .897667 of the time difference, and only a few of the new samples fall exactly on the same time mark as the old ones, now we got the problem in interpolation."

http://www.dvinfo.net/forum/all-thin...important.html

Sampling rate conversion is simplified if rates are integer multiples of each other.

Here are some interesting charts comparing SRC with different manufacturers:

http://src.infinitewave.ca/
All of the effects seen in the Infinitewave graphs are due to the filters used. they explain that in the FAQ and Help.

ABSOLUTELY NO PROGRAM EVER DIVIDES BY 2 TO DOWNSAMPLE. NONE. NOT GOING TO HAPPEN. IT IS A MYTH. This is exactly the reason why I posted about this. There are so many people that still don't understand how this actually works or have been told incorrectly and then adhere to the wrong information as though it is fact.

Do this little math problem for me please.

44100 x 160 = ?
48000 x 147 = ?

What are the answers to the equations above? Noticing anything similar about the answers? What do you think that means in terms of sample rate conversion?
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